But Gret -- aren't most of the jet you describe actually acquired in a "reverse" 1031 like kind exchange utilizing a qualified intermediary?
As posted earlier, I agree with your point that that the bonus depreciation schedule results in very few sales.
Quick example of a an IRC 1031 exchange.
Company X bought their first plane 6 years ago and it cost $30 million. They owned it over 5 years so the cost basis is zero (the $30 million has been fully depreciated). X wants to buy a new plane for $40 million and the used aircraft has a value of $15 million.
X has two options, sell the old aircraft outright for $15 million…or complete a qualified 1031 exchange where the buyer of the old aircraft pays $15 million (via escrow) to the seller of the new aircraft and X comes up with boot of $25 million to complete the deal
If X had not completed a 1031 exchange and sold the aircraft to a third party, it would have to recognize a gain of $15 million and then could depreciate the new plane’s basis of $40 million….which is crazy.
Assuming a 1031 is completed, X would depreciate $25 million…cost of the new aircraft less gain deferred. X would not recognize any gain from the disposition of the old aircraft.
A brand new aircraft owner may consider the impact of bonus depreciation, but if Fat Cat Jack is buying a new G650 for $55 million and getting rid of his tired G550 (value probably $35 million via a 1031), Jack would only have an asset to depreciate of $20 million because he is deferring $35 million in gains from the fully depreciated aircraft. Fat Cat isn’t going to think twice about the depreciation consequences of the $20 million in boot. Especially if he is traveling from his New York apartment to the Palm Beach mansion on weekends December thru April…he can’t (or shouldn’t) be able to deduct the cash and deprecation expenses of these trips anyway.
Most major aircraft purchases are via 1031 exchanges and my point is that bonus depreciation is over emphasized with its influence in generating new aircraft sales because it is only calculated on the “boot” paid, not the entire purchase price.
My understanding of a reverse 1031 is that it is used when you take title to the new property prior to the sale of old property. I don’t believe this affects the tax consequences of the transaction.
As always, one should consult with a professional tax consultant, lawyer, Buddha/rabbi/priest, and your wife before doing anything.