2000flyer
EASY FLYER
- Joined
- Nov 26, 2001
- Posts
- 1,586
A week ago I was sitting on a hillside off runway 6L in Anchorage watching the stream of cargo types departing for their wordly destinations, I've always been amazed watching 72's, 74's, etc., using nearly every foot of runway available.
I understand the concept and use of "FLEX" takeoffs. My question is how the information is derived. For example, in computing a FLEX takeoff on a 747, I assume before V1 you'll still abort for the obvious reasons. However, if you've figured a reduced power takeoff, thus a longer takeoff roll, how is V1 affected in relation to the loss of one or more engines? Is APR figured in? Does a 747 even have APR?
Not trying to get to technical here, just curious as I sat there watching heavies rotate with 1000' remaining. After more than 20 years of flying, I can still be awed!
Regards,
2000Flyer
I understand the concept and use of "FLEX" takeoffs. My question is how the information is derived. For example, in computing a FLEX takeoff on a 747, I assume before V1 you'll still abort for the obvious reasons. However, if you've figured a reduced power takeoff, thus a longer takeoff roll, how is V1 affected in relation to the loss of one or more engines? Is APR figured in? Does a 747 even have APR?
Not trying to get to technical here, just curious as I sat there watching heavies rotate with 1000' remaining. After more than 20 years of flying, I can still be awed!
Regards,
2000Flyer