TXCAP4228
Well-known member
- Joined
- Sep 10, 2002
- Posts
- 426
Andy Neill said:Could someone help me out here? I don't understand the double taxation of dividends point. It was my understanding that dividends paid out by a corporation were a business expense like employee salaries and such. Such payments would reduce corporate income and the tax liability. If that is not the case, then they must be paid after taxes and then the double taxation argument would make sense.
Does the payment of dividends affect the taxes a corporation pays or not?
Before you define dividend you have to understand what "stock" is. I appologize if this is too elementary but this is to answer you as well as other people who don't know but have the same question.
"Stock" represents a small ownership stake in a company. Public companies (where anyone is eligible to own stock) have a fixed number of shares issued, and then each share represents some small fraction of the total ownership of the company.
Now, "corporate profits." A corporation that makes a profit at the end of the year pays taxes on that income. Once that income tax has been paid, the corporation may decide to RETAIN those earnings (stick them under the matress or invest them or whatever) or they may decide to pay a "divedend" to the owners of the company - all the stockholders. So a divedend is just those "corporate profits" being distributed to the owners of the company.
The reason that the current system is "double taxation" is that the divedend is profit that has already been taxed as a "corporate profit". What justifictaion is there for txaing it AGAIN when you pay it out to the owners?
Now you ask about expense. No, a divedend payment is not an expense in the sense that it is incurred from the business operations of the company. A divedend is a decision by the company to disburse its profits to the owners (the stockholders).
I hope that helps.